What is the interpretation of the verse: "And she certainly inclined to him, and he would have inclined to her" in Surah Yusuf, and how could Yusuf (Joseph) عليه السلام incline to her when he was chaste?

The wife of Al-Aziz was intent on committing the sin, whereas Yusuf’s (peace be upon him) intent was an impulse to repel sin due to the presence of a clear sign (Burhan). That is, had he not seen the clear sign from his Lord, he would have been tempted by her. There are two interpretations of “and he would have lusted for her”:

1. A purely inner urge that was dispelled by his piety, or a natural inclination and instinctive desire restrained by piety. This is not considered a sin because it is an inherent human disposition for which one is not held accountable. Such an urge, if not acted upon, earns a full good deed.

2. That Yusuf never had the urge at all; rather, it was negated from him due to the presence of the clear sign.

The preponderant view is that Yusuf (peace be upon him), had he not seen the clear sign from his Lord, would have been tempted by her. However, when he saw the clear sign from his Lord, he was not tempted by her and no such urge occurred from him at all. Merely having an urge for something without acting upon it is not considered a sin.