What is the correct ruling regarding the renewal of the marriage contract for someone whose marriage was dubious or void, and he divorced her before consummation with an implicit divorce along with the intention, and he did not renew the contract due to his ignorance, then he got married [to another]? And is it obligatory for the one who became pregnant by him to observe an iddah period by one menstruation or by delivery if she wishes to renew the contract, or should the contract be renewed directly without an iddah?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
The preponderant view is that it is obligatory to ascertain the non-pregnancy of a woman with whom intercourse occurred due to a misconception (shubhah) by one menstrual cycle. This is the opinion chosen by Ibn Taymiyyah.
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