Is it permissible for someone suffering from obsessive doubts (al-mawsuwis) to adopt the opinion of a mufti stating that a divorce by allusion (طلاق الكناية) has not occurred, despite his personal conviction that the divorce has occurred and that he deliberately intended the allusive utterance? And is this considered an act of working with the easier (rule)?
If one is certain that he divorced his wife by his own choice and awareness, then the divorce has occurred. As for the one afflicted by whispers (waswas) who merely imagines this, he should follow the opinion of whoever issued a fatwa to him that the divorce did not occur, and he should not pay attention to the whispers.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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