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The question

What is the ruling on a husband cursing his wife or describing her as unclean, like a dog? Is the wife sinful for withholding herself from him until he appeases her with money or a gift, or is divorce better in this situation?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

It is forbidden for a husband to humiliate, curse, or revile his wife, or to treat her poorly. If a husband mistreats his wife and uses obscene language, the wife has the right to seek divorce (ṭalāq) or annulment (khulʿ) if he does not mend his ways and she cannot endure his harm. Humiliation is a moral harm for which financial compensation is generally not permissible to be taken according to most scholars. However, the wife may ask for a gift or present from the husband as a way of demonstrating her worthiness (on account of her suffering) to rectify his behavior and discipline him, but not as an obligation. If the husband refuses, the wife does not have the right to compel him, nor is it permissible for her to refuse intimacy with him due to his mistreatment. In such cases, wise and sincere individuals from both his family and hers should mediate to reconcile them.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
7440
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy