What is the ruling on a husband embracing his wife with desire but without intercourse after the first 'tahallul' and before the second 'tahallul' during Hajj, and is there a sin incurred if the wife was unaware and the husband was in doubt?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
Scholars have differed regarding the ruling on foreplay with desire after the first tahallul (partial desacralization). The majority of them prohibited it, while some permitted it. Most Shafi'is hold that it is not permissible except after both tahalluls, while what is well-known from the author and Al-Ruyani is its permissibility after the first tahallul. According to the opinion of the majority, which is the most cautious and absolves one's responsibility, foreplay with desire after the first tahallul necessitates a (expiation), which is one of the following options: fasting for three days, or feeding six poor persons, or sacrificing a sheep.
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