Does a divorce occur with the husband's statement to his wife: "If Friday comes and my wife has not returned, then she is considered irrevocably divorced," knowing that she was in a state of postpartum bleeding (nifas) and became pure before the divorce?

A man should not use divorce as a means of pressure on his wife. If the husband makes divorce conditional on an action by his wife, then if she performs it at the specified time, no divorce occurs. If she does not perform it, then it refers back to the husband's intention. If he intended the divorce to occur, then it occurs. If he did not intend divorce, but rather intended to oblige his wife to do what he wants, then divorce does not occur, and its ruling is that of an oath, requiring him to pay an expiation for breaking an oath. Sheikh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah said: "Whoever makes divorce conditional on a condition, intending thereby only to encourage or prevent (an action): then he is excused by an expiation for breaking an oath if he breaks it. But if he intended the consequence (meaning, the occurrence of divorce) by making it conditional, then she is divorced."