Back to search
The question

Why is the discussion of the punishment for sodomy limited to fatwas, considering that the Quran clarified that the destruction of the people of Lut was not solely due to obscenity? And does one fall under the ruling of the people of Lut merely by inclination without practice?

Share this answer

Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Sodomy is one of the gravest sins and most heinous abominations. Its perpetrator is of a perverted nature and deserves punishment and disgrace. The difference of opinion among scholars regarding its punishment is a matter of (independent reasoning), and no one should be censured for differing. The aforementioned is weak. The disagreement regarding the punishment does not diminish the atrocity of this great sin, but the door of repentance is open for whoever repents. The natural inclination of some towards this deviation does not excuse them, and they must strive against their lower selves. As for mere inclination without engaging in the abomination or its مقدمات (preliminaries) and without imitation, there is no sin in it. However, one should not surrender to it and must close the doors to temptation. Striving against the self in obedience to Allah and keeping away from sins is a righteous deed for which the servant will be rewarded.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

Read the full answer on Ftawy
Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
148340
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full ruling
Read the full answer on Ftawy