Do the second divorce pronouncement that occurred after intercourse and the last divorce pronouncement after doubt about the husband count, and are they included in the legal number of divorce pronouncements?

If a man divorces his wife during a period of purity in which he had intercourse with her, the preponderant opinion is that it is an innovative divorce (talaq (definition) bid'i) that does not take effect, unless a judicial ruling pronounces its occurrence, or the divorcer acts upon a fatwa (definition) that has declared it to take effect.

Similarly, if a man divorces his wife based on a certain matter, and then it becomes clear that this matter is untrue, the preponderant opinion is that his divorce does not take effect. For example, if your husband divorced you because he thought you spied on him, and then it became clear that you did not do so, then this divorce does not take effect.