Is a marriage contracted without the bride being asked for her consent valid in Islamic law? And is consummating the marriage without giving the dowry just to the bride?

Firstly: If a woman converts to Islam and has no Muslim guardian, then her guardian is the Muslim judge, or the Imam of the Islamic Center/Mosque. He undertakes the offer (ijab) and the husband accepts, provided the woman's consent is obtained.

Secondly: The non-specification of the Mahr (dowry) does not affect the validity of the marriage contract. It is permissible to conduct the marriage without specifying it, according to the consensus of jurists. If it is specified but not given, then it becomes a debt upon him.

Thirdly: The husband is obliged to treat his wife kindly and fulfill her right to sexual intercourse. He is not permitted to be absent for more than six months without her permission; otherwise, she has the right to divorce.