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Is the responder's deduction correct that the verse: (Forbidden to you for marriage are your mothers, your daughters, your sisters, your paternal aunts, your maternal aunts, your brother’s daughters, your sister’s daughters, your foster-mothers who suckled you, your foster-sisters from the same suckling, your wives’ mothers, your stepdaughters under your guardianship born of your wives to whom you have gone in—but if you have not gone in unto them, there is no sin upon you) differentiates between a wife with whom intercourse has occurred and one with whom it has not, and thus it is not permissible for the husband to engage in sexual intercourse or touch?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

He who infers from the verse the prohibition of intercourse after the marriage contract has erred, for the verse pertains to what is forbidden in marriage. It is permissible for the husband to enjoy his contracted wife in every way, but it is preferable not to have intercourse before announcing the marriage to avoid potential harms. Non-consummation entails certain rulings, such as the absence of a waiting period (iddah) for a divorced woman before consummation, and her entitlement to half of the stipulated Mahr or a compensatory gift (mut'ah), whereas she is entitled to the full Mahr in the case of death.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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