Does the phrase sent by the husband to his wife: "If the interest between us requires going to a certain country, and that we meet there, will you come? If you come, I promise you on my honor that I will treat you like a stranger as long as we are in the apartment, except in front of people only, and you will return just as you came," take the ruling of zihar? And is it a condition to utter it verbally for it to take this ruling, or is a written message sufficient? And if it is zihar, is its ruling suspended until the spouses go to that specific country, or does it occur even in other places?
It is unlawful for a woman to seek divorce except for a valid reason. Among these reasons is the husband's failure to provide for her, as maintenance is obligatory upon him. As for the husband's statement, "I will not come near you," it does not constitute ẓihār, because it does not involve a prohibition or a comparison to unlawful women. Therefore, there is no objection for the husband to approach his wife at any time.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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