What is the ruling on a husband saying to his wife: "If I desire one of my daughters, I will desire you," and does this statement fall under the ruling of Zihar?

The apparent meaning of this phrase is the husband informing his wife of his lack of desire for her as a daughter. No legal ruling, such as prohibition, ẓihār, or divorce, results from it, unless he intended one of these, in which case what he intended occurs. The jurists from the Maliki, Shafi'i, and Hanbali schools have explicitly stated that a man's statement to his wife, "I have no need for you," is among the allusive phrases (kināyāt) of divorce, and therefore, it does not effect divorce except with the intention. As for Abu Hanifa, he holds that even if he intended divorce with his statement, "I have no desire for you," it does not take effect.