Why did the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, dislike the writing of the verse of stoning with the wording “the old man and the old woman,” and does Umar’s disapproval of its wording suggest that it is not part of the Qur’an? How do we reconcile the authenticity of its chain of narration according to Al-Tabari with Al-Nasa’i’s judgment that it is a delusion? And does this wording indicate that the ruling of stoning is related to old age and not to being married, even though Ibn Uthaymin believes that this wording does not resemble the Qur’an?

The verse of stoning (rajm) is established and definitive, even though its recitation has been abrogated. The Companions recited it and acted upon it. The words "the old man and the old woman" (al-shaykh wa al-shaykhah) were mentioned in it, but the ruling pertains to being muhsan (married/previously married), not to old age. Thus, a young, muhsan person is also to be stoned. This is evidenced by the Prophet's (peace be upon him) stoning of Ma'iz, Al-Ghamidiyyah, and Al-Asif. The Prophet's (peace be upon him) dislike for its being written down was due to his knowledge of the abrogation of its wording. Umar did not find it problematic; rather, he urged acting upon it.