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The question

What is the ruling on a lease contract that does not specify the lease term and stipulates that the owner does not have the right to evict the tenant except in the case of rebuilding the shop? Is there any sin in it? And what is the legitimate way out if there is sin in it? And what is incumbent upon one who has fallen into error?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

For the validity of a lease contract, its duration must be specified. If the duration is not determined, the contract is invalid () and must be rescinded. This condition imposed by the tenant on the landlord, namely the absence of a specified duration, invalidates the contract. The tenant should not remain bound by a lease contract whose duration is not specified. Every condition or law that contravenes the ruling of Allah is void, and one must submit to the ruling of Allah and His Messenger, for "The only statement of the believers when they are called to Allah and His Messenger to judge between them is that they say, 'We hear and we obey.' And those are the successful."

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
57767
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy