Why is divorce not treated like prayer in terms of its occurrence by moving the tongue and lips without audibly speaking to oneself, whereas prayer is valid in this manner, given that the most preponderant opinion concerning divorce is that one must speak audibly to oneself or louder?

In both issues, scholars have differed regarding the condition of making oneself hear. The majority of scholars stipulate that one must make oneself hear when reciting in prayer and when pronouncing divorce. However, the Malikis hold that merely moving the tongue is sufficient. Furthermore, they even maintain that there is a difference of opinion regarding whether divorce occurs through mere internal speech.