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The question

Does it become unlawful if a man tells his wife: "You are forbidden to me if you hide anything from me," intending to intimidate her, not to divorce her, knowing that she has indeed hidden something from him, and is their relationship considered unlawful?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The prohibition of one's wife depends on the husband's intention: if he intended divorce, it becomes a divorce; if he intended ẓihār, it becomes ẓihār. If he intended an oath or had no specific intention, an expiation for an oath (kaffārat yamīn) becomes obligatory.

Therefore, if you conditioned the prohibition of your wife on her concealing something, and she did conceal it, then the breaking of the oath has occurred. Since you intended a threat and did not intend divorce or ẓihār, an expiation for an oath is obligatory upon you.

As for the phrase "you bear the unlawful," its apparent meaning is to threaten the wife and frighten her that she will bear the sin if she conceals something, and it has no effect on the ruling.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
118804
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy