What should a wife do if her husband is obligated to fast for two months as an expiation before consummating their marriage, yet he does not fast in Ramadan, and she was unable to prevent him from touching her? And is she sinful for being lenient in this matter?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If a husband pronounces Dhihar upon his wife and wishes to have intercourse with her before expiating it, the wife must refuse and not enable him. If he has intercourse with her by force, she bears no sin. However, she must take appropriate measures to deter him, such as advising him, informing someone who can advise him, refusing to sleep with him, or taking him to court, as Allah Almighty says: "And whoever fears Allah - He will make for him a way out." (At-: 2)
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/38451
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 38451
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- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy