Does a divorce occur for someone who said to his fiancée, "I am like Harun al-Rashid" and doubts whether he meant by "the concubines around him" that he would treat her like "concubines," regardless of whether this was before or after the marriage contract, and does mere doubt about the phrase "concubine" or "like concubines" necessitate anything?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
A husband is not required to divorce his wife for telling her, "I will treat you like a slave" or "O slave," whether this was before or after the marriage contract. Divorce does not occur except through an explicit utterance or an indicative insinuation coupled with the intention. We advise against succumbing to such intrusive thoughts.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/100037
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 100037
- Imported
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- Source text, unreviewed
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