Is a husband's prevention of his wife from conceiving considered a temporary marriage (mut'ah), or does it violate one of the conditions for the validity of marriage? Is he Islamically entitled to do so? Is it permissible for the wife to remove the contraceptive without his permission? What is the ruling on aborting the fetus in this case? Who bears the sin if that occurs? Is it permissible for her to communicate with others to inquire without her husband's knowledge?

Preventing a wife from conceiving does not affect the marital bond. The desire for a child is a right for both spouses, and neither can prevent the other from it without a valid excuse. Abortion is forbidden unless there is a danger to the mother's life. The sin falls upon whoever directly performs the abortion, causes it, or assists in it, and diyah (blood money) and expiation are incumbent upon the one who performs it directly. A woman does not sin if she removes a contraceptive device without her husband's knowledge, though she should try to persuade him to avoid conflict. A woman communicating with others without her husband's knowledge is permissible for a legitimate need and as long as there is no suspicion, such as inquiring about a religious ruling.