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Does a divorce occur in the following cases: the husband saying to his wife, "You are divorced" twice in a conditional form "If you do such and such, if you speak such and such," then repeating the phrase "You are divorced" three times via a text message, then repeating it over the phone but without the wife or her father hearing the phrase? And is it permissible for the husband to take his wife back after that, knowing that his first statement was intended to scare her, the second was in a state of anger, and the third was a threat to the wife's father?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

If a husband conditioned a divorce on his wife having done something in the past, and she had indeed done it, the divorce takes effect. However, if he conditioned it on a future action with the intention of threat, some scholars are of the opinion that it does not take effect, while the majority (jumhur) believe that it does take effect upon the fulfillment of the condition. The fact that the divorce occurred after intercourse does not prevent its validity. If the husband repeated the condition on different matters and they occurred, multiple divorces take place, corresponding to the number of conditions. The message in which the husband wrote, "You are divorced, divorced, divorced," results in one divorce, unless the husband intended three. Anger does not prevent the divorce from taking effect as long as the husband's mind is sound. Divorce via phone is valid whether the wife heard it or not, unless the husband was under true duress. It is advisable to present the matter to trustworthy scholars to ascertain the details of the incident.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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