Is the return (of the wife) valid if a man divorces his wife without the intention of returning her, or if he intends not to return her?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
"A man who has issued a revocable divorce (talaq raj'i) to his wife is permitted to take her back before the completion of her waiting period ('iddah), even if he did not intend to reconcile at the time of the divorce. His reconciliation is valid even if he explicitly stated that he would not take her back. If the reconciliation is made with an explicit utterance, it does not require an intention, unlike an implicit utterance (kinayah) which necessitates an intention. What was mentioned [in the question] does not constitute a reconciliation."
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/112281
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 112281
- Imported
- Translation status
- Source text, unreviewed
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy