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The question

Is Zakat obligatory on money inherited by the children and wife, knowing that the share of each individual does not reach the Nisab on its own, while their total share does reach it, and the money has not been purified by Zakat before, and there is doubt about its lawfulness, and it is located in another country and is being spent in installments?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Firstly: Zakat is not obligatory on the collective share of the heirs; rather, it is obligatory on the share of each individual heir, provided their share reaches the nisab (minimum threshold) and a hawl (full lunar year) passes over it.

Secondly: If the deceased did not pay the zakat on their wealth, it must be deducted from the estate before its division, as it is a debt that takes precedence over the rights of the heirs.

Thirdly: Mere doubt about the lawfulness of the deceased's wealth does not affect inheritance. However, if the heirs know that the wealth is unlawful (haram), then it is not permissible for them.

Fourthly: There is no harm for adult heirs to share expenses from their own shares. It is permissible to share food and drink with minors from their shares, in accordance with the verse: "And if you mix with them, they are your brethren."

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

Read the full answer on Ftawy