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How many divorces are considered to have occurred if the husband said to his wife, "You are divorced," with the intention of threat, then said to her, "By the life of the Quran, you are divorced," also with the intention of threat, then divorced her for the third time with the intention of pleasing his mother and not with the intention of divorce, then proceeded with a khul' (divorce by mutual consent) assuming it was an annulment of the marriage contract and not a divorce?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

If a husband divorces his wife with three pronouncements, she becomes irrevocably separated from him and unlawful for him until she marries another man. His intent to threaten is not considered, because the wording is explicit, and there is no compelling duress to justify the divorce. As for khul‘ (divorce initiated by the wife), it is not applicable after the third pronouncement. If he intended divorce by the oath, then the third divorce takes effect. However, if he intended to recount the first divorce, then only two divorces remain. If the pronouncements, or some of them, occurred before the expiry of the iddah (waiting period), it is an innovative and forbidden divorce (طلاق بدعي), but it is nevertheless effective. It is advisable to refer the matter to the Sharia courts for adjudication.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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