Does the statement that the gathering of men and women occurred before the revelation of the hijab, and that afterwards it was restricted to wives and mahrams, require historical evidence? And does the existence of statements allowing the exposure of limbs used for ablution, and weak hadiths regarding the exception of the forearm, invalidate the assertion that scholarly consensus was reached on only two opinions concerning the hijab?

The statement that men and women gathering to perform ablution from a single vessel was permissible before the revelation of the Hijab, and after its revelation, it became exclusive to wives and mahrams, is the view of Al-Hafiz Ibn Hajar Al-Asqalani. The proof here is that ordering something prohibits its opposite. So, if the Hijab was commanded, then the gathering of men with non-mahram women to perform ablution from a single vessel is no longer permissible, due to the impossibility of combining the covering of awrah with the exposure of limbs during ablution. The existence of a view permitting the exposure of ablution limbs does not negate the consensus (Ijma'); because Ijma' is only formed by the opinions of the Mujtahideen after the death of Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him), and the views of those who hold Bid'ah (innovations) that lead to disbelief are not considered. Furthermore, it is inappropriate to use weak hadiths as evidence against the formation of Ijma'.