What is the ruling on avoiding the mention of derivatives of the word "divorce" (talaq), such as "taliq" (divorced woman) and "mutallaqah" (divorced) in family discussions about marital problems, and instead using alternative words like "I will leave her" or "I will forsake her" without intending divorce? And does this apply only to the aforementioned words or more?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
The jurists have defined explicit divorce as the pronouncement of divorce and its derivatives, excluding the imperative and present tenses. If the husband utters explicit divorce pronouncements, his divorce takes effect. However, if the word is "مطلقة" (divorced woman), it takes effect in the form of the passive participle, not the active participle. Mentioning divorce by way of narration does not constitute a divorce. A man should beware of explicit and allusive divorce pronouncements and should seek gentle words for reconciliation. There is no harm in using divorce or allusive terms by way of narration.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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