How is the utterance of "divorce" considered explicit and effective in bringing about divorce, while it is stated in "Fiqh as-Sunnah" that it does not bring it about?

For a clear divorce (explicit talaq), the word "talaq" (divorce) or its derivatives must be attributed to the wife, such as "You are divorced" (anti taliq) or "I have divorced you" (tallaqtuki). It should not be in the imperative or present tense form. If the word is not attributed to the wife, it is considered an implicit divorce (kinayah).