Does a man's saying "Taliq" (divorced) without adding "to my wife" or a pronoun referring to her prevent the divorce from taking place?

For an explicit divorce to occur, its wording must be attributed to the wife, such as saying, "My wife is divorced," or "You are divorced." The wording must be ascribed to the addressee or her person or what stands in her place. Otherwise, merely uttering the word "divorced" without attribution is not considered an explicit divorce.