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The question

Does a man's divorce oath against his wife take effect if he swears to her by divorce that she bring him a sum of money before the end of the week, and she only completes it between Maghrib and Isha on Friday, knowing that he lent her part of the amount?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Divorce is based on the intention of the swearer. If you intended that divorce would occur if your wife did not bring the full amount before the end of official working hours in your country on Wednesday or Thursday, and then she brought it on Friday evening, then divorce has occurred according to the majority of scholars. You may take her back before her waiting period () ends, provided this divorce does not complete the three divorces.

However, Sheikh Al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah and those who agreed with him said that you are required to offer an expiation for breaking an oath (kaffarat ) if you did not intend divorce.

If you did not intend a specific time, then the wording refers to the customary meaning of the week. If there is no custom, then it refers to the linguistic meaning, and the week begins on Sunday and ends on Saturday. Therefore, you have not broken your oath as long as she brought the amount within the mentioned time.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
124899
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Source text, unreviewed
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