What is the ruling binding upon the spouses who engaged in sexual intercourse during the daytime in the past Ramadan, knowing that the husband is seeking employment but has a good financial resource, and the wife is in her last month of pregnancy, and the length of the day in the country they reside in is 16 hours? Is it obligatory to fast the days consecutively? Should the wife fast at the same time? What is the value of the expiation that must be paid and is it possible to pay it in an Arab country? What is the legal ruling if the current fetus is a result of that intercourse?

The sacredness of Ramadan (definition) is immense, and violating it is among the gravest of transgressions. It is obligatory for a Muslim to safeguard their fast.

You must repent to Allah Almighty and expiate what you have done with a severe expiation (kaffarah (definition) mughalladhah), which is: freeing a believing slave. If that is not possible, then fasting for two consecutive months. If you are unable to do that, then feeding sixty needy persons. This order is obligatory according to the majority of scholars.

As for the wife, there is no expiation upon her; rather, she only needs to make up the fast if she was willing and chose to do so.

It is not a condition for the expiation to be made in your place of residence. You can authorize charitable organizations or individuals to pay it on your behalf.

The presence or absence of pregnancy does not entail any ruling, for the child is your son by the consensus of the people of knowledge.