Is the brother absolved by his oath, or is expiation obligatory upon him, if he swore not to take the price of medicine he bought for a relative, then he took it after his relative swore to give it to him, then he gave it to a third party to give to children learning the Quran, knowing that he does not remember a specific intention regarding the retrieval of the price or its retention in hand?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If a person swears an oath not to take the price of medicine and then takes it, he is considered to have broken his oath, because an oath is based on the apparent meaning of the words unless the intention specifies otherwise. In oaths, reference is made to the intention of the one swearing the oath. If he did not intend anything, reference is made to the reason for the oath. We advise against rushing into oaths, and whoever breaks an oath must offer expiation for it.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/115139
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 115139
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- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy