Is what I uttered, "Divorce that I will travel like him," considered an oath of divorce, knowing that I did not complete it and uttered it unintentionally and without premeditation, and immediately thereafter I said, "I will travel in September"?

If the husband's tongue utters the word "divorce" unintentionally, then nothing is incumbent upon him according to the majority of scholars, as stated in the Fiqh Encyclopedia. The Shafi'is and Hanbalis do not enact the divorce due to lack of intention, while the Hanafis do enact it because he chose to speak. The Malikis consider a slip of the tongue an excuse if it is proven.

However, if the husband intended to utter the word without intending to enact the divorce, then it is a conditional divorce, and an explicit divorce does not require intention. So, if the husband does not travel like his colleague, the divorce takes effect according to the majority of scholars.

In the event of divorce, the husband can reconcile with his wife before the expiration of her 'iddah (waiting period) if this was not the third divorce. The 'iddah ends with the completion of the third menstrual period, or three months for a woman who does not menstruate, or by giving birth for a pregnant woman. The reconciliation is valid by word or action.