Does the marriage, as described in its details, exceed the legal number of divorces?
The mentioned divorce has three possibilities:
1. First Possibility: If the first divorce occurred before consummation and valid seclusion, it is an irrevocable divorce (Talaq Bain), and the wife is not permissible [for the husband] except with a new contract. If the return occurred before renewing the contract, then the resumption of marital relations (raj'ah) is invalid, and the second and third divorces do not occur due to the termination of the marital bond. 2. Second Possibility: If the return occurred with a new contract, then the last two divorces occur, and thereby the wife becomes unlawful [for the husband] until she marries another husband in a marriage of genuine desire. 3. Third Possibility: If the husband falsely informed the judge or notary about the occurrence of divorce to obtain a divorce paper, the divorce does not occur unless the second wife requests divorce from the judge.
And the child is attributed to the husband if the pregnancy occurred during his marital bond or after its termination, and the validity of the marriage was believed.
It must also be noted:
The permissibility of polygyny and its regulations, and the impermissibility of the first wife requesting the divorce of the second. The prohibition of abortion without a valid شرعي (Shar'i) excuse. A wife irrevocably divorced three times does not become permissible for her husband until she marries another husband in a marriage of genuine desire, not for the purpose of making her lawful (tahlil). The waiting period (iddah) for a divorced woman is three menstrual cycles, or delivery for a pregnant woman, or three months for one who does not menstruate. Divorce occurs merely by the husband uttering it, and it does not require the presence of dislike or the impossibility of cohabitation.
The advice is to approach a Shar'i judge to explain what happened so he can rule on it.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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