Does the husband's statement to his wife: "Why didn't you ask for divorce now?" and "It's better that you go to court and initiate khulʿ against me," constitute a divorce or khulʿ, especially since he did not intend divorce or khulʿ, and the wife did not agree to or desire khulʿ?

The phrases mentioned for the wife do not effect a divorce. Rather, divorce is effected by an explicit utterance or by an allusive one accompanied by intention. The explicit utterance effects a divorce without intention, while the allusive one does not effect a divorce except with intention.