Does the husband's statement to his wife: "Why didn't you ask for divorce now?" and "It's better that you go to court and initiate khulʿ against me," constitute a divorce or khulʿ, especially since he did not intend divorce or khulʿ, and the wife did not agree to or desire khulʿ?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The phrases mentioned for the wife do not effect a divorce. Rather, divorce is effected by an explicit utterance or by an allusive one accompanied by intention. The explicit utterance effects a divorce without intention, while the allusive one does not effect a divorce except with intention.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/112136
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 112136
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy