Is the marriage considered void due to the couple's fondling of each other—without penetration—and their reaching ejaculation shortly before the marriage contract, and are they thereby considered fornicators?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
Your marriage is valid, and the forbidden foreplay that occurred between you does not invalidate it. Repentance from this sin is accepted, for the one who repents from a sin is like one who has no sin.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/157891
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 157891
- Imported
- Translation status
- Source text, unreviewed
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- Read the full answer on Ftawy