Does a divorce occur by the husband's oath to his wife by saying: "If you go to a male doctor, whatever the reasons, or you go to a male hairdresser, whatever the reasons, then you are forbidden to me until the Day of Judgment," if she is forced to go to a male doctor for a Cesarean section?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
Scholars differ regarding swearing to make one's wife unlawful (tahrim). Some view it as zihar, some consider it a divorce, and others regard it as an oath. If you did not intend divorce or zihar, the preponderant opinion is that its ruling is that of an oath (yamin). Thus, if your wife underwent surgery with a doctor, you must offer expiation for breaking an oath (kaffarat yamin), and thereby your oath is dissolved. You are not obligated by anything if she is later compelled to go to a doctor.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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