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What is the ruling on moving the head in agreement, with "yes" or "ah," to divorce without an explicit intention to divorce, and without uttering or writing it, knowing that there are marital problems and a poor psychological state for which medication has not been taken?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

As long as you did not pronounce the divorce verbally, nor did you write it with the intention of effecting it, then no divorce has occurred from you. And your answer to your wife with "yes" or similar, when she asked you if you wanted a divorce, does not effect her divorce.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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