Is the divorce pronounced by the husband during a period of purity in which he had intercourse with his wife considered an irrevocable divorce? And are previous pronouncements of divorce, which the judge ruled invalid, to be counted as divorces? And is it permissible for the wife to remain with her husband in this situation?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If the matter is brought before a court, and the judge rules that the divorce did not occur, then there is no blame upon you for acting according to this ruling, even if others have issued a to you that it did occur. For the follower [of a ] adheres to the judge's decree and disregards the 's opinion if the two conflict. And assuming the divorce did occur, your husband's taking you back with his words places you under his marital bond, and there is no issue in that.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/177490
Where this answer came from
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 177490
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy