Is the Murabaha contract for purchasing a car with the Egyptian Saudi Bank permissible, taking into consideration that the bank did not actually take possession of the car, and the car was registered directly in my name with a sale prohibition in favor of the bank?

The apparent meaning of the question is that the bank did not purchase the car and take possession of it, but rather promised to pay its value from the dealership. This makes the bank's role that of a lender with an increment, which is an explicit usurious transaction. For Murabaha to be permissible, the bank must first purchase the commodity, then take possession of it, and then sell it to the Murabaha seeker for a known amount that does not increase with delayed payment. If you entered into this transaction based on your assumption of the existence of Sharia supervision, then the sin is upon them, as the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, said: "Whoever is given a fatwa without clear evidence, then its sin is upon the one who issued the fatwa." If you can annul the transaction without significant harm, then it is obligatory to do so.