Is the revocable divorcee considered to have returned merely by the meeting of the two circumcised parts and the glans entering between the labia (at the entrance) without the intention of reconciliation?
The jurists have agreed on the validity of the revocation by word.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/61698