Why is the intention to effect a divorce stipulated in a divorce by innuendo, even if the husband intends it by the utterance, taking into consideration that some phrases considered innuendo may be seen by some as explicit?

The intention required for a divorce to occur through ambiguous (kinaya) expressions is that the man intends by the ambiguous word the meaning of divorce and intends to effectuate it upon his wife. As Ibn Hajar Al-Haytami said: "The intention of the essence of divorce and its effectuation is stipulated, like all ambiguous expressions." And Al-Dimyati said: "It requires the intention of effectuating divorce by it." The questioner is advised to stop repeating questions about divorce and blameworthy assumptions in Islamic law.