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The question

What is the meaning of using the word "woman" instead of "wife" in the verse: "When the woman of 'Imran said, 'My Lord, indeed I have vowed to You what is in my womb, liberated, so accept from me. Indeed, You are the All-Hearing, the All-Knowing'"?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

There is no validity to the claim that there is a rule distinguishing between the use of the words "zawjah" (wife) and "imra'ah" (woman) in the Holy Quran to indicate righteousness or lack thereof. The verse in Surah Al-Imran refers to Imran's wife as a righteous woman, and similarly, Prophet Ibrahim's wife, Sarah, was a righteous woman, and the Quran described her as "and his imra'ah (woman/wife)." Also, Ibn Mas'ud's righteous wife was described as "Ibn Mas'ud's imra'ah (woman/wife)." This proves that these claims are fundamentally baseless, and that the Quran was revealed in eloquent Arabic during a time when Arabs had a high proficiency in the language and were unable to challenge it.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
92022
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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