Is it permissible to commit a sin if its prohibition was based on certain reasons, and then these reasons ceased to exist for a specific individual?
If a prohibition in Islamic law is tied to a definitive cause (illah qaṭʿiyyah), it ceases to apply when that cause no longer exists. Examples include lengthening one's garment out of arrogance (al-khuyalāʾ) and the prohibition of two people whispering in the presence of a third, for fear of saddening him. However, if a prohibition is established and a cause is mentioned for it that is not intrinsically tied to it, then the ruling does not cease to apply when that cause no longer exists; rather, the text remains as it is. Examples of this include the prohibition of intoxicants (), usury (ribā), and gambling (qimār). A ruling revolves with its cause, in existence and non-existence, if the cause is definitive. However, if it is speculative (ẓanniyyah) or inferred (mustanbaṭah), then it does not.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/77298
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 77298
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy