What is incumbent upon a husband who swore an oath by divorce that he would not travel with his first wife, then intended a prevarication inwardly after taking the oath?

If the swearer intends a specific meaning with his oath that the wording can accommodate, then his oath refers to what he intended, and he does not break it if the reality matches his intention, even if the wording is general or absolute. It is obligatory for a man who has two or more wives and wishes to travel with one of them to cast lots between them, or for them to consent to it; otherwise, he must make up for it to them.