Does the husband's oath, "By God, it is forbidden for me to travel from you," take effect if he did not intend divorce, and by a previous oath of divorce without intending divorce?

If the husband utters an explicit divorce, or makes it conditional upon an event that then occurs, divorce takes place according to the majority of scholars. If it is the first or second divorce, the husband may take his wife back before the 'iddah (waiting period) expires. However, if it is the third divorce, she does not become lawful for him until she marries someone else, he consummates the marriage with her, and then he divorces her.

As for swearing by "haram" (unlawful) not to travel, if he does not break his oath, there is nothing upon him. But if he does break it, then if he had an intention, it is taken into consideration. If he had no intention, then he is considered to have committed zihar (a pronouncement making his wife unlawful to him like his mother) regarding his wife, and he must offer expiation for zihar before engaging in intercourse. It is preferable that he also offer expiation for a broken oath along with the expiation for zihar.