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The question

Why must a Muslim not wash his private parts after passing wind (gases and vapor) and suffice with ablution for prayer, and is everything narrated from the Messenger of Allah, peace and blessings be upon him, authentic, bearing in mind that the madhhabs did not exist during the time of the Messenger?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The claim that jurists divided the Ummah is false, for the differences among them are a mercy and a breadth for the Ummah. The Companions, the Successors, and the Imams all agreed on the permissibility of (following a qualified scholar) for those unable to perform (independent reasoning). The differences in ijtihad among scholars do not spoil affection, nor are they to be rejected by force; rather, they are discussed with scholarly proofs. And it is from Allah's mercy that He appointed scholars for the who distinguished authentic hadiths from weak ones, and to them one refers in this matter. As for wind, it is pure by consensus, and its emission does not necessitate ' (washing after relieving oneself). Rejecting the rulings of Islamic law with mere intellect is not characteristic of a Muslim.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
114697
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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