Does a man's pronouncement of "You are divorced" to his wife count as a divorce if he said it believing she requested it by saying "throw it," while she actually meant "throw the card," given that this is the second pronouncement and they had intercourse afterward?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
Divorce does not take effect unless its wording is attributed to the wife. If it is not attributed to her, then it is a kinayah (allusion) and refers back to the husband's intention. Should he have intended divorce, then it takes effect, and its occurrence is not prevented by the wife's intention to throw the card, not to be divorced, for what is considered in this matter is the husband's intention.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/152931
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 152931
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy