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Has the triple divorce become irrevocable based on the mentioned events, and does sexual intercourse during daylight hours in Ramadan before the first divorce affect it?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

The husband's pronouncement of divorce three times:

The first divorce, stated as "You are divorced," is an explicit divorce and takes effect. Its occurrence during a period of purity (tuhr) in which intercourse took place does not prevent its occurrence according to the majority of scholars, though it does not take effect according to Sheikh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah.

The second divorce, stated as "If you anger me, you are divorced": If he intended to suspend the divorce on a discussion, and it did not occur, then the divorce does not take effect.

The third divorce, which is "suspending the divorce on tearing up the document": His intention must be considered. If he specified a time for tearing it up and she did not tear it up before that time expired, then the divorce is effective according to the majority of scholars. According to Sheikh al-Islam, if he did not intend divorce, an expiation for a broken oath (kaffarat yamin) is required. If he did not specify a time, then the divorce does not take effect until it becomes impossible to tear it up.

If divorce occurred once and he took you back (revoked the divorce) thereafter, you remain under his marital bond. If it occurred twice, he may take you back before the completion of the waiting period (iddah) through intercourse or its preliminaries, even if he did not intend revocation. If the waiting period expires, you do not become lawful for him except through a new marriage contract.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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