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The question

Does a wife sin if she does not invite her husband to bed, or wake him to fulfill his conjugal right, and must she appease him after he hits her, to avoid the curse of the angels, knowing that she never refuses intercourse?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

It is obligatory for the wife to respond to her husband's call to bed if he invites her, without a valid excuse. However, she is not obligated to offer herself to him. Therefore, there is no sin upon you for not seeking your husband for intimacy, and he has no right to beat you or abandon you for this reason. You are not obliged to appease him, and the warning mentioned in the regarding a wife who refuses her husband's bed does not apply to you, because he is the one who is neglectful and oppressive. So, she is not to be blamed if he unjustly initiates abandoning her. Nevertheless, if you can appease him, it would be good, for Abdullah ibn Abbas narrated that the Messenger of Allah (peace be upon him) said: "Shall I not inform you about your women from the people of Paradise? The loving, the fertile, the one who always returns to her husband. When she harms or is harmed, she comes and takes her husband's hand, then says: 'By Allah, I shall not taste sleep until you are pleased.'"

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
133781
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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