Does divorce occur if the neighbor's daughter enters the house, given that the husband swore an oath of divorce to his wife, saying, "If you allow this woman (the neighbor) to enter my house, then you are divorced," and he intended to prevent the child's entry as a dependent of her mother, but he did not explicitly mention the child in the wording of the oath?

It appears that the child's entry would cause the oath to be broken, considering the intention and the reason upon which the oath was based. For in an oath, the intention specifies the general and generalizes the specific. However, if the wife allowed the child to enter, interpreting that the divorce would not occur, there is a difference of opinion among scholars regarding whether the oath is broken, with some preferring the view that it is not. Sheikh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah said: "He may do the sworn-upon act forgetfully, or by interpretation, or he may have refrained for a reason, and that reason has ceased, or he swore believing it to be of a certain description, but it became clear to be otherwise. These categories, according to the stronger opinion, do not result in divorce." We advise you not to use divorce pronouncements for intimidation. It is the wife's duty to obey you in what is good and lawful.