What is the ruling regarding a husband who swore to his wife that she should not enter their neighbor's house, saying: "If you enter [so-and-so's house], then everything between us is over," and then the wife entered her neighbor's house due to an accident involving her daughter? Does divorce occur in this case?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
This phrasing could mean divorce or something else. If the husband did not intend to make the divorce conditional, then divorce does not occur when the wife enters her neighbor's house. However, if he did intend to make the divorce conditional, then it occurs upon her intentionally entering, unless his intention was to prevent her without need or necessity. In that case, he does not break his oath if she enters for a need, because the intention specifies the wording. Therefore, one must refer back to the husband to know his intention.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/184839
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 184839
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy